Former Cowboys running back Ezekiel Elliott is down to three options in free agency according to a report by ESPN’s Adam Schefter: the BengalsEagles and Jets.

The two-time All-Pro has spent his entire seven-year NFL career with Dallas, which took him with the No. 4 pick in the 2016 NFL draft. He led the NFL in rushing yards in ’16 and ’18 and made three Pro Bowls during that stretch. After taking on a heavy workload through his first few seasons, Elliott started surrendering carries to young rusher Tony Pollard over the last few seasons.

Last season, the former Ohio State star posted career lows in rushing attempts (231), rushing yards (876), receptions (17) and receiving yards (92), though he did score 12 touchdowns on the ground. He was limited to 69 yards from scrimmage and did not score in two postseason games.

Earlier this offseason, the Cowboys opted to use the franchise tag on Pollard, and released the 27-year-old Elliott. While there was some talk about him rejoining the team on a smaller deal, Dallas added former Buccaneers running back Ronald Jones II to pair with Pollard.

Elliott hopes to make a decision on his next team by the end of next week, Schefter reports. All three teams—a Dallas NFC East rival in Philadelphia—have significant playoff aspirations heading into the 2023 season.